G+ LoME Archive
Mar 08, 2018 (11:32)
What would, in your opinion, be the present perfect of the verb derived from SKEY 'pass' (whether it's *xíta or *xéya is probably irrelevant in this case)? *eskéye?
Mar 08, 2018 (11:53)
. PE22:103 per ending (where
is prob. for *
Start per ibid.:112. TQ
not excluded, also
Mar 08, 2018 (12:30)
hm, why not *eskítie, *eskínie, wouldn't having a stress on the syllable push it towards de-diphtongisation (if that's a word:)?
Mar 08, 2018 (23:01)
√SKEY xíta- to pass > √KEY cíta- to suppose?
Mar 08, 2018 (23:11)
you mean that as an analogy? Yes, that may be, unless one wants to distinguish that to pass is intransitive and suppose is transitive. But I guess that may be going too far.
But the question for me wasn't really the aorist (I can accept either of them as valid) but the shape of the perfect.
Mar 08, 2018 (23:14)
I mean that perhaps xíta- might follow the same pattern as cíta-. Maybe I used the ">" incorrectly. :)
Mar 08, 2018 (23:27)
perhaps, but it does not help with the perfect ☺️
Mar 09, 2018 (02:38)
I agree with you, except that in later Quenya sk usually metathesized to ks even medially:
eldamo.org - Eldamo : Quenya : [sp], [sk] metathesized to [ps], [sk]
Medial sk is more common that ks. So I would use exeinie or exeitie
Mar 09, 2018 (09:34)
Right. So to piggyback on +
's idea, is the prefect of
Mar 09, 2018 (15:13)
Erg. It seems that
is not a normal diphthong in Quenya, and usually
, as in
. Thus the perfects should be
, or possibly reformed to
Mar 09, 2018 (15:35)
Hmm. I checked PE19/106, and there the rule is that
in stressed monosyllables and stressed non-final syllables, but otherwise becomes
. Apparently this change was after the Quenya stressed shifted. So I’m not sure why the attested form is
. Apparently Tolkien didn’t quite make up his mind on the development of