Guys, I would like to pick your brains on two bits in LVS7 in PE22.
1) on p154 there is this quite generic statement "... The particular infin. with - Italian differing in use from the preceding mainly in being able to receive pronominal object affixes". Now I know that Tolkien goes on to give us only examples with kar-, and it has been long the assumption in the community (as far as I know) that the ita forms only appear with primitive verbs, I think that from Tolkien's later assertion that the vowel i is carried through in participal forms of ta/ya/t/y verbs we can infer that the same is true for ita, and forms like tultaitas "to fetch it", istaitas "to know it" would occur. Would you agree?
2} on the following page there is this baffling sentence : "the verbal participles (capable like the definite infin ita of taking pronominal affixes) in ila."
I am having a hard time imagining a situation where a word like karila would take a pronominal affix, either objective or possessive. Can you think of some sample sentences? Unless the participles can start functioning as nouns (like in Hungarian for example) in which case a possessive ending is imaginable.