When there is no transitive/intransitive distinction between the two forms, in my opinion all we can say is that perhaps the strong form may feel more formal, olden (because the weak form is likely the result of a later, analogical formation).
+Tamas Ferencz so, in your opinion, when there is both forms and no distinction, the weak should be marked as archaic or poetic? That is what my opinion is but wanted some justification. ☺
+James Coish I don't know about archaic - Tolkien usually marked the words he wanted to be taken as archaic, so if he didn't, it probably means the two forms were more or less equivalent and were used in colloquial language.
Björn Fromén Aug 25, 2018 (18:15)
Tamas Ferencz Aug 26, 2018 (11:49)
James Coish Aug 26, 2018 (14:44)
Tamas Ferencz Aug 27, 2018 (17:08)