Some musings to discuss. Maybe I'm involved in scholasticism right now, but I started to believe Q. han is as much a postposition as pella is. Who is to prove which one from i ëa han ëa is 'the Universe' and which is 'exists'? Tolkien never left any capitalizations, and the final position of existence verb is more expected knowing how Tolkien preferred postponing ná to the end of the sentence and especially after comparison to Q. ar i Eru i or ilyë mahalmar ëa of a very similar structure. Could it actually be *"O Eru which World-outside exists"? Cf. i ëa pell' ëa in the draft version…