Lenited after an imperative verb, if I'm correct ("...edro hi ammen"). Sí is here, si is now, according to the sources. Whether they were interchangeable, I don't know.
According to my understanding of PE17, Tolkien says that in LotR-style Sindarin "si" means 'in this place, here' independently of its length (sí could be a more emphatic form, it is under iambic stress both times it occurs), and "hi" for older thî, hî is interpreted as 'now'. Judging by examples, both always appear unlenited in LotR, presumably for both aesthetic purposes and not to confuse them with each other. Tolkien explicitly compares S. si/hi distribution to Q. sinomë/si and asks not to confuse Q. si 'now' with S. 'here' (27). I believe, we should never get "si" lenited for we only confuse the meaning this way. +Tamas Ferencz In 'edro hi ammen' he writes "hi" - "now" is used, again unlenited.
According to PE/17:67, however, "sī = now or here, but in Quenya usually 'now'. ... In Sindarin it usually = here." (bold emphasis by me). So it's not that simple. :)
+Lőrinczi Gábor Possibly, the "here" and "now" meanings were quite interchangeable in Elven minds, or Quenya influence could lead to Noldorin mis-use?..
+Lőrinczi Gábor Off-topic question: why does Tolkien mark i in "si" on p. 27 with both long and short marks above each other? Does he imply both vowel lengths are possible?
There is another note by Tolkien (VT49:34 note #21) indicating that Sindarin sî = "here" and hî = "now". I can't find any examples of Sindarin sî used for "now" in my notes. I think the evidence indicates that hî is a distinct word rather than the lenited form of sî, though possibly the two originated in the same primitive form.
As for long versus short i, my guess it that it would depend on whether or not the word was stressed in the sentence.
+Paul Strack I tend to agree with short vs. long: in Lay of Leithian, si is unstressed by metre, and thus gets short. +Lőrinczi Gábor is there any 'official' translation, e. g. by Christopher Tolkien? Indeed, Salo's translation gives "now", but it was done way before PE17, and some of the existing translations just skip the word at all…
Or if it means "alone, only", as I have understood that it's glossed in VT 50. But actually, I don't think the exact reading of si is very important for the understanding in this poem.
Tamas Ferencz Feb 20, 2015 (14:35)
Sí is here, si is now, according to the sources. Whether they were interchangeable, I don't know.
Александр Запрягаев Feb 20, 2015 (15:44)
Tamas Ferencz Feb 20, 2015 (16:05)
well spotted. I admit I have forgotten that he discussed these adverbs in PE17. Thanks for the correction!
Lőrinczi Gábor Feb 20, 2015 (16:14)
Александр Запрягаев Feb 20, 2015 (17:32)
Lőrinczi Gábor Feb 21, 2015 (17:19)
Александр Запрягаев Feb 21, 2015 (19:12)
Paul Strack Feb 21, 2015 (22:06)
As for long versus short i, my guess it that it would depend on whether or not the word was stressed in the sentence.
Lőrinczi Gábor Feb 21, 2015 (22:41)
+Paul Strack In Lúthien's song (LB/354), si is usually translated as "now". Of course, it doesn't prove anything. :)
Александр Запрягаев Feb 22, 2015 (11:41)
Lőrinczi Gábor Feb 22, 2015 (15:26)
Hjalmar Holm Feb 22, 2015 (20:00)
Lőrinczi Gábor Feb 23, 2015 (13:37)
Hjalmar Holm Feb 25, 2015 (01:51)