A conceptual question.
We know that in Q adjectives can act as nouns (A Vanimar etc.). Would you agree that the same concept could be true for adjectival participles, in particular for future imperfect participles?
In my native Hungarian the future imperfect participle ("is to/bound to do/happen") exists (although it is relatively rare compared to the present imperfect participle which is very widely used in both adjectival and nominal roles) and is the basis of a lot of nouns. For example
jövendő "is to come = future"
teendő "is to be done = task"
halandó "bound to die = mortal"
even beadandó "to be handed in = essay to be written at home and handed in at university"
and more.
If the same concept can apply in Q that would yield another legitimate way to derive words. E.g. *ahtaruvaila "(person) to react = responsible (person)" > *ahtaruvailasse "responsibility".
Paul Strack Jan 24, 2018 (16:57)
Tamas Ferencz Jan 24, 2018 (17:10)
Paul Strack Jan 25, 2018 (02:13)
Where English uses adjectives as nouns, they are frequently collective, as in "the wicked will punished", with the understanding that "wicked" is plural. I can see Quenya using a construct like i hrúar in a similar way, clearly distinguishable for adjectival use because it has a noun plural instead of an adjective plural.
The handful of examples of Quenya adjectives-as-nouns seem to follow this pattern. For example, alómear "the voiceless" for voiceless consonants.
Ицхак Пензев Jan 25, 2018 (06:32)
Tamas Ferencz Jan 25, 2018 (08:15)
Tamas Ferencz Jan 25, 2018 (08:20)
Somehow I feel that creating neologisms using attested and productive formative suffixes (-ta, -inqua, -ite, -ima, -ula etc. etc.) is a more natural way of getting results than for instance trying to make cognates. It is in keeping with the agglutinative features of the language to the extent that - tome at least - they don't even feel like neologisms, they are a natural part of conjugation.
Lokyt L. Jan 25, 2018 (13:10)
However, both active and passive future participle in Latin are modally potential (they express an intention, not a statement) and the same seems to be the case in Hungarian as well (or am I wrong?). Quenya future participles, on the other hand, are plainly indicative, are they not?
Tamas Ferencz Jan 25, 2018 (13:33)
Ицхак Пензев Jan 25, 2018 (13:34)