+Matt Dinse What is the situation with verbal inflexions in PE22's later sources? As I understand, -of and -ab are now supposed to be 1pl. exclusive and inclusive forms respectively, instead of -am and -anc? And does Tolkien still follow his new belief in the non-existence of duals anywhere but Quenya?
And are there any separate pronouns mentioned, as well as any attestations of n-infixed past tense?