I posted this question other places but I'd like to here some more opinions.
Medial NG sound.
Should it be [ŋ] or [ŋg]?
Tolkien said "NG represents more or less ng in finger, except finally where it was sounded as in English sing" in Appendix E.
so initial or medial NG is [ŋg] and final NG is [ŋ].
Medial NG followed by a vowel like anga[ɑŋgɑ] is no problem. But how about medial NG followed by a consonant?
It seems that some Elvish students or linguists believe NG followed by a consonant should be pronounced as [ŋ] not [ŋg] just like final ng as in Glaurung: Angband[ɑŋbɑnd], Angmar[ɑŋmɑr], Angrod [ɑŋrod], Anglachel[ɑŋlɑxel].
It may feel more natural with just [ŋ] sound to most English speakers but according to Tolkien's note in Appendix E, I think it is more likely with distinct g sound as in Grond: Angband[ɑŋgbɑnd], Angmar[ɑŋgmɑr], Angrod [ɑŋgrod], Anglachel[ɑŋglɑxel]
Is there any evidence to overthrow Tolkien's direction in Appendix E?
Paul Strack Feb 19, 2017 (02:38)
That argues strongly for medial [ŋg].
Ekin Gören Feb 19, 2017 (03:02)
Eldamo offers ang's development as aŋgā > aŋga > aŋg, and stops there. Since we (as far as I know) haven't seen a rule which suggests that G disappeared after [ŋ], even when final.
http://eldamo.org/content/words/word-2297079921.html
Paul Strack Feb 19, 2017 (03:03)
Ekin Gören Feb 19, 2017 (03:07)
Paul Strack Feb 19, 2017 (03:47)
Salo does seem to be of the opinion that medial [ŋg] either remained or was restored in the phonetic development of Sindarin. See, for example, §4.201.
Ekin Gören Feb 19, 2017 (10:51)
Paul Strack Feb 19, 2017 (17:40)
"The groups mb, nd, ŋg written [as tengwar malta, númen, noldo] have now become [m]; [nn] medially and [n] finally; [ŋg] medially and [ŋ] finally" (PE22/35)
And
"In late Exhilic [ŋg] suffered no further change. [tengwa noldo] thus represents [ŋg] except finally, where it is [ŋ]. [ŋg] has since remained before r, l, but became [ŋ] before other consonants, as Angband = [aŋban]. Before a main stress [ŋg] is sometimes in Toleressean reduce to [ŋ], but this is not normal." (PE22/36)
So, this would indicate pronunciations:
Angband [ɑŋbɑn] and Angmar [ɑŋmɑr]
but Angrod [ɑŋgrod], Anglachel [ɑŋglɑxel]
Of course, the above is Tolkien writing about Noldorin in the 1930s, and he could have changed his mind about Sindarin.
Ekin Gören Feb 19, 2017 (17:55)
Young P Feb 20, 2017 (11:11)
Now the pain in the neck is gone. Thank you.
I hope I could read PEs or other stuffs but I'm not even done with major works yet...