Post PgCxUZkW4bp

Ekin Gören Jul 07, 2016 (20:17)

MEL: A-verb or I-verb?
We see CE melā- in PE22/095;130;134
Also ᴹQ meláne in LR/061
Yet Q shows melin etc. in VT49/15;21

+Александр Запрягаев seems to support the former, but almost all of us use the latter. What do the Lambengolmor think?

Александр Запрягаев Jul 07, 2016 (21:16)

I think VT49 (ca. 1965) is carelessness. PE22:164 shows that neither the concept of an inherently durative verb nor the roster of those have changed during the decades. Of course, these pieces of evidence might be used as an equally strong proof that Tolkien specifically eliminated the particular MEL out of this class — but I believe it improbable. EtyAC N melo which never got a chance of being obsoleted, also supports here.

Ицхак Пензев Jul 08, 2016 (09:53)

I won't be afraid to use both, since both are attested.

Lőrinczi Gábor Jul 09, 2016 (11:05)

And what about S? In VT/45:34 we have a deleted N melant, though we see S úvel (supposedly from *mel-) in PE/17:144-45.